Microbiology and Immunology

Viral Life Cycle and Disease Practice Questions

20 free Viral Life Cycle and Disease practice questions for the USMLE Step 1. Tap an option to answer — you get instant feedback, the correct answer, and a detailed explanation for every question.

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Question 1 of 20 Medium

A patient develops fever and rash after a trip to the Caribbean. RT-PCR confirms dengue virus. Which viral genus does dengue belong to?

  1. A Picornavirus
  2. B Flavivirus
  3. C Adenovirus
  4. D Paramyxovirus

Correct answer: Flavivirus

Dengue virus is a flavivirus, an enveloped, positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus in the family Flaviviridae, alongside Zika, yellow fever, West Nile and Japanese encephalitis viruses. It is transmitted by Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes and has four serotypes, which is why a second infection with a different serotype carries the highest risk of severe dengue.

Question 2 of 20 Medium

HIV requires which enzyme to convert viral RNA into DNA?

  1. A RNA polymerase II
  2. B Reverse transcriptase
  3. C DNA polymerase I
  4. D Integrase

Correct answer: Reverse transcriptase

Reverse transcriptase converts HIV RNA into complementary DNA, enabling integration into the host genome.

Question 3 of 20 Medium

A patient with a history of bone marrow transplant develops pneumonia from CMV reactivation. What type of virus is CMV?

  1. A Enveloped dsDNA herpesvirus
  2. B Non-enveloped ssRNA virus
  3. C Enveloped negative-sense RNA virus
  4. D Segmented dsRNA virus

Correct answer: Enveloped dsDNA herpesvirus

CMV is a herpesvirus, which are enveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses. They are known for latent infections with reactivation.

Question 4 of 20 Medium

Influenza virus requires which process to produce infectious progeny due to its segmented genome?

  1. A Antigenic drift
  2. B Antigenic shift
  3. C Frameshift mutation
  4. D Rolling-circle replication

Correct answer: Antigenic shift

Antigenic shift results from reassortment of influenza's segmented RNA genome. This leads to major antigenic changes and pandemics.

Question 5 of 20 Medium

A patient develops muscle paralysis due to poliovirus. Which receptor does poliovirus use for entry?

  1. A CD155 (PVR)
  2. B CD55 (DAF)
  3. C CD4
  4. D CCR5

Correct answer: CD155 (PVR)

Poliovirus binds CD155 (also called PVR or Necl-5) on host cells. It is a picornavirus that spreads through the GI tract.

Question 6 of 20 Medium

A man develops jaundice and dark urine 6 months after acute viral hepatitis. Which hepatitis virus is most likely to cause chronic infection?

  1. A Hepatitis A
  2. B Hepatitis C
  3. C Hepatitis E
  4. D Hepatitis D alone

Correct answer: Hepatitis C

Hepatitis C frequently progresses to chronic infection due to its high mutation rate and ability to evade immunity.

Question 7 of 20 Medium

A patient with parotitis also develops orchitis. Which virus is most likely responsible?

  1. A Measles virus
  2. B Mumps virus
  3. C Rubella virus
  4. D Adenovirus

Correct answer: Mumps virus

Mumps virus, a paramyxovirus, causes parotitis and can lead to orchitis in males.

Question 8 of 20 Medium

A patient with rabies shows eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in neurons. What are these inclusions called?

  1. A Councilman bodies
  2. B Löwy bodies
  3. C Negri bodies
  4. D Guarnieri bodies

Correct answer: Negri bodies

Negri bodies are cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus. They are diagnostic on histology.

Question 9 of 20 Medium

A patient infected with HPV-16 develops cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Which viral proteins inactivate tumor suppressors?

  1. A E1 and E2
  2. B E5 and E7
  3. C E6 and E7
  4. D E3 and E4

Correct answer: E6 and E7

HPV E6 inhibits p53 and E7 inhibits Rb, promoting uncontrolled cell division and carcinogenesis.

Question 10 of 20 Medium

Rotavirus infection causes severe diarrhea by which mechanism?

  1. A Enterotoxin overproduction
  2. B Villous atrophy
  3. C NSP4-mediated chloride loss
  4. D Invasion of intestinal mucosa

Correct answer: NSP4-mediated chloride loss

Rotavirus NSP4 acts as an enterotoxin causing chloride and water loss. It also causes villous shortening.

Question 11 of 20 Medium

Herpes simplex virus remains latent in which location?

  1. A Dorsal root ganglia
  2. B Red bone marrow
  3. C Regional lymph nodes
  4. D Hepatic sinusoids

Correct answer: Dorsal root ganglia

HSV establishes latency in sensory ganglia such as the trigeminal and sacral ganglia. Reactivation causes recurrent lesions.

Question 12 of 20 Medium

A man develops severe watery diarrhea after a cruise. Stool PCR detects Norovirus. What is the genome of this virus?

  1. A Enveloped double-stranded DNA
  2. B Non-enveloped positive-sense RNA
  3. C Enveloped negative-sense RNA
  4. D Segmented double-stranded RNA

Correct answer: Non-enveloped positive-sense RNA

Norovirus is a non-enveloped, positive-sense RNA virus commonly associated with outbreaks on cruise ships.

Question 13 of 20 Medium

A patient with roseola (HHV-6) presents with high fever followed by a rash. Which cells does the virus primarily infect?

  1. A Neutrophils
  2. B CD4+ T cells
  3. C Hepatocytes
  4. D Endothelial cells

Correct answer: CD4+ T cells

HHV-6 infects CD4+ T cells. It causes exanthem subitum (roseola) in infants.

Question 14 of 20 Medium

A man returns from Africa with hemorrhagic fever caused by Ebola virus. To which viral family does Ebola belong?

  1. A Filovirus
  2. B Flavivirus
  3. C Togavirus
  4. D Orthomyxovirus

Correct answer: Filovirus

Ebola is a filovirus, an enveloped negative-sense RNA virus known for causing severe hemorrhagic fever.

Question 15 of 20 Medium

A newborn exposed to rubella in utero develops congenital cataracts. What property of rubella enables transplacental infection?

  1. A Segmented RNA genome
  2. B Viremia in the mother
  3. C Cytoplasmic replication
  4. D Reverse transcription

Correct answer: Viremia in the mother

Rubella causes maternal viremia, allowing the virus to cross the placenta and infect the fetus.

Question 16 of 20 Medium

A patient with hepatitis B shows ground-glass hepatocytes. Which component of HBV accumulates in hepatocytes?

  1. A HBcAg
  2. B HBeAg
  3. C HBsAg
  4. D HBxAg

Correct answer: HBsAg

Ground-glass hepatocytes result from accumulation of HBsAg (surface antigen) within the endoplasmic reticulum of infected hepatocytes.

Question 17 of 20 Medium

A patient with vesicular rash on the trunk is diagnosed with varicella-zoster virus. Where does VZV establish latency?

  1. A Enteric neurons
  2. B Dorsal root ganglia
  3. C Corticospinal neurons
  4. D Retinal ganglion cells

Correct answer: Dorsal root ganglia

VZV remains latent in dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia. Reactivation causes shingles.

Question 18 of 20 Medium

A patient with viral meningitis is found to have an enterovirus infection. Which virus is most likely responsible?

  1. A Coxsackievirus
  2. B Adenovirus
  3. C Herpes simplex virus
  4. D Rabies virus

Correct answer: Coxsackievirus

Coxsackievirus, a picornavirus, is a common cause of viral meningitis, especially in children.

Question 19 of 20 Medium

A patient with hepatitis D infection becomes severely ill after acquiring HBV simultaneously. What term describes this situation?

  1. A Reactivation
  2. B Superinfection
  3. C Coinfection
  4. D Antigenic shift

Correct answer: Coinfection

Coinfection occurs when both HBV and HDV are acquired at the same time. It is typically less severe than superinfection.

Question 20 of 20 Medium

An infant with laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) presents with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Which virus is the most likely cause?

  1. A Respiratory syncytial virus
  2. B Parainfluenza virus
  3. C Rhinovirus
  4. D Adenovirus

Correct answer: Parainfluenza virus

Parainfluenza virus, a paramyxovirus, is the classic cause of croup. It leads to subglottic swelling and the characteristic barking cough.

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