Microbiology and Immunology

Vaccines and Immunoprophylaxis Practice Questions

20 free Vaccines and Immunoprophylaxis practice questions for the USMLE Step 1. Tap an option to answer — you get instant feedback, the correct answer, and a detailed explanation for every question.

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Question 1 of 20 Medium

A 2-month-old infant receives the DTaP vaccine. Which type of vaccine protects against tetanus?

  1. A Live attenuated vaccine
  2. B Inactivated whole organism
  3. C Toxoid vaccine
  4. D Conjugate polysaccharide vaccine

Correct answer: Toxoid vaccine

The tetanus vaccine is a toxoid vaccine made from inactivated toxin. It stimulates antibody production against tetanospasmin.

Question 2 of 20 Medium

A patient traveling to an area with yellow fever receives the yellow fever vaccine. Which type of vaccine is this?

  1. A Live attenuated
  2. B Inactivated
  3. C Subunit
  4. D Toxoid

Correct answer: Live attenuated

The yellow fever vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine. It generates strong, long-lasting immunity.

Question 3 of 20 Medium

A 6-month-old infant receives the Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?

  1. A Toxoid
  2. B Polysaccharide only
  3. C Conjugate vaccine
  4. D Live attenuated

Correct answer: Conjugate vaccine

Hib vaccine is a polysaccharide conjugated to a protein carrier. This enhances T-cell–dependent immunity in infants.

Question 4 of 20 Medium

A traveler is exposed to rabies and receives rabies immunoglobulin plus the rabies vaccine. What type of immunity do these provide?

  1. A Active only
  2. B Passive only
  3. C Passive then active
  4. D Neither active nor passive

Correct answer: Passive then active

Rabies immunoglobulin provides immediate passive immunity, while the vaccine stimulates long-term active immunity.

Question 5 of 20 Medium

A patient with chronic lung disease receives the annual influenza vaccine. Which formulation is recommended for adults?

  1. A Live attenuated intranasal vaccine
  2. B Inactivated intramuscular vaccine
  3. C Conjugate vaccine
  4. D DNA vaccine

Correct answer: Inactivated intramuscular vaccine

Adults, especially those with chronic conditions, receive the inactivated influenza vaccine. The live intranasal vaccine is contraindicated in many adults.

Question 6 of 20 Medium

A child with SCID should NOT receive which vaccine?

  1. A DTaP
  2. B Hepatitis B
  3. C MMR
  4. D Inactivated polio vaccine

Correct answer: MMR

MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated in severe immunodeficiency. Inactivated vaccines are safe.

Question 7 of 20 Medium

Which vaccine is recommended to prevent shingles in older adults?

  1. A Live attenuated varicella vaccine
  2. B Recombinant zoster vaccine
  3. C Subunit influenza vaccine
  4. D Conjugate pneumococcal vaccine

Correct answer: Recombinant zoster vaccine

The recombinant zoster vaccine is preferred for adults over 50 due to strong efficacy. It is non-live and safe in immunocompromised persons.

Question 8 of 20 Medium

A pregnant woman should receive which vaccine during each pregnancy?

  1. A MMR
  2. B Varicella
  3. C Tdap
  4. D Live attenuated influenza

Correct answer: Tdap

Tdap protects infants from pertussis through maternal antibody transfer. Live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy.

Question 9 of 20 Medium

Which vaccine prevents infection by a virus with circular, partially double-stranded DNA?

  1. A Hepatitis A
  2. B Hepatitis B
  3. C Rotavirus
  4. D MMR

Correct answer: Hepatitis B

Hepatitis B is a partially double-stranded DNA virus. The vaccine uses recombinant HBsAg to elicit immunity.

Question 10 of 20 Medium

A child receives the rotavirus vaccine. Which type of vaccine is it?

  1. A Inactivated whole-virus vaccine
  2. B Live attenuated oral vaccine
  3. C Toxoid-based vaccine
  4. D Recombinant subunit vaccine

Correct answer: Live attenuated oral vaccine

Rotavirus vaccine is a live attenuated oral vaccine. It induces mucosal immunity in the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 11 of 20 Medium

Which vaccine is required for functional asplenic patients due to increased susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria?

  1. A Hepatitis A virus vaccine
  2. B Hepatitis B virus vaccine
  3. C Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
  4. D Rotavirus oral vaccine

Correct answer: Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

Asplenic patients are at risk for infections by encapsulated organisms. The pneumococcal conjugate vaccine provides protection through T-cell–dependent responses.

Question 12 of 20 Medium

A healthcare worker is exposed to hepatitis B but has never been vaccinated. What is the recommended post-exposure prophylaxis?

  1. A Hepatitis B vaccine only
  2. B Hepatitis B immunoglobulin only
  3. C HBIG plus hepatitis B vaccine
  4. D No prophylaxis needed

Correct answer: HBIG plus hepatitis B vaccine

Unvaccinated individuals require both passive (HBIG) and active (vaccine) immunization. This prevents acute infection.

Question 13 of 20 Medium

Which vaccine is contraindicated in infants younger than 6 weeks?

  1. A Rotavirus
  2. B Hepatitis B
  3. C BCG
  4. D Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

Correct answer: Rotavirus

Rotavirus vaccine is not administered before 6 weeks of age. Other routinely recommended vaccines can be started earlier.

Question 14 of 20 Medium

A patient receives a vaccine containing purified polysaccharide antigens that stimulate B cells without T-cell help. Which vaccine fits this description?

  1. A PCV13
  2. B PPV23
  3. C Hib conjugate
  4. D Tdap

Correct answer: PPV23

PPV23 contains unconjugated polysaccharides, producing a T-cell–independent response. It is less immunogenic in young children.

Question 15 of 20 Medium

Which vaccine uses recombinant subunit technology to prevent cervical cancer?

  1. A HBV vaccine
  2. B HPV vaccine
  3. C Varicella vaccine
  4. D Influenza vaccine

Correct answer: HPV vaccine

The HPV vaccine contains recombinant L1 capsid protein, forming virus-like particles. It protects against high-risk HPV strains.

Question 16 of 20 Medium

Which type of vaccine is most effective at producing mucosal IgA immunity?

  1. A Inactivated vaccine
  2. B Live attenuated vaccine
  3. C Subunit vaccine
  4. D Toxoid vaccine

Correct answer: Live attenuated vaccine

Live attenuated vaccines stimulate replication at mucosal sites, generating strong IgA responses. This improves protection against mucosal pathogens.

Question 17 of 20 Medium

A child receives an oral polio vaccine in a country where it is still used. What advantage does OPV have over IPV?

  1. A Higher overall safety profile
  2. B Induces intestinal mucosal immunity
  3. C Cannot revert to neurovirulence
  4. D Requires only a single dose

Correct answer: Induces intestinal mucosal immunity

OPV induces strong mucosal IgA immunity, reducing viral shedding and transmission. However, it has rare risks of reversion to virulence.

Question 18 of 20 Medium

Which vaccine is associated with rare immune-mediated thrombocytopenia and Guillain–Barré syndrome?

  1. A Influenza vaccine
  2. B Hepatitis A vaccine
  3. C Rotavirus vaccine
  4. D Polio vaccine

Correct answer: Influenza vaccine

The inactivated influenza vaccine has been rarely associated with GBS. The risk is small compared to the risk from influenza infection itself.

Question 19 of 20 Medium

A newborn receives intramuscular vitamin K. What type of prevention does this represent?

  1. A Primary prevention
  2. B Secondary prevention
  3. C Tertiary prevention
  4. D Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: Primary prevention

Vitamin K prophylaxis prevents hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. This is primary prevention since it prevents disease before onset.

Question 20 of 20 Medium

Which pathogen requires both pre-exposure and post-exposure prophylaxis in high-risk laboratory workers?

  1. A Diphtheria
  2. B Rabies
  3. C Tetanus
  4. D Measles

Correct answer: Rabies

Rabies poses high risk to lab workers exposed to infected animals. Both pre-exposure vaccination and post-exposure prophylaxis are recommended.

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